I was wondering if anyone has the anwser to my question. It is my understanding that someone can download music if they have previously purchased the CD, tape, or whatever that they are downloading. But if someone owns a movie like a DVD or tape, they are not entitled to download the movie digitally. Is this right? Anyone know what justification there is for this?

There's no quick answer--the lawyers and Supreme courts in many countries are trying to argue this one.

Read the other threads on "legal", follow the links, and in a few days you'll probably start getting a handle on the question.

Then a court will come up with another ruling, and we'll all go back to being even more confused again

cheers